
Cross-border CAPM valuations typically follow two approaches. The local-CAPM approach builds the discount rate using the target country’s own risk-free rate and market risk premium. The base-country approach starts from a mature market and adds country-specific adjustments such as country risk premiums and inflation differentials. Both approaches can be valid when applied consistently.
The cost of capital model is typically built around a mature reference market, most often the country where the risk-free rate and market data are readily observable. Applying that same model to a target operating in a different country raises a basic construction question: Where does the target country's risk enter the model?
Let's consider a company operating in Poland as an example. Two internally consistent approaches are used in practice.
This approach builds the cost of equity from a mature reference market, then adds Poland's incremental risk as a separate, identifiable layer:
Ke = Rf(Germany) + β × [MRP(Germany) + CRP(Poland)] + Inflation Differential
Poland's own zero rate and market risk premium are used directly, each already reflecting local conditions. Since Poland's zero rate is denominated in zloty, it already embeds local inflation expectations, so no separate inflation differential applies. Country risk itself already sits within both Poland's zero rate and its market risk premium, so no separate country risk premium layer is required.
Ke = Rf(Poland) + β × MRP(Poland)
Both are defensible constructions. The risk lies in mixing them: pairing a local risk-free rate with a mature-market premium, or the reverse, without an explicit adjustment for the resulting mismatch.
A related point worth keeping in mind: Damodaran's data is a common source of CRP for practitioners applying Option A. His methodology derives the CRP by scaling a sovereign bond default spread upward, since equity markets are typically more volatile than government bond markets. The bond spread is only the starting input, an observable proxy for sovereign risk drawn from the bond market, and the scaling factor converts it into an equivalent premium for equity investors.
Neither approach is universally correct. What matters is applying one consistently and documenting which was used.
Both the base-country adjustment approach and the fully local CAPM approach can produce defensible results. The key requirement is internal consistency: the risk-free rate, market risk premium, inflation assumptions and country-risk adjustments must fit together.
Generally, no. In a fully local CAPM construction, country risk is already reflected in the local risk-free rate and market risk premium. Adding a separate country risk premium would risk double counting.
Inflation differences matter when the valuation currency and the reference market currency differ. Under a base-country approach, an inflation differential may be required to reconcile the expected purchasing-power difference between currencies.